Blog chia sẻ Bộ đề thi thử tốt nghiệp THPT môn Tiếng Anh năm 2022, giúp bạn ôn luyện và chuẩn bị cho thật tốt cho kì thi THPT sắp tới.
Để chuẩn bị cho kì thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh năm 2022 sắp tới, việc luyện đề là rất quan trọng. Nhằm giúp các em ôn thi hiệu quả, Tailieufree giới thiệu Bộ đề thi thử tốt nghiệp THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh bao gồm nhiều đề thi khác nhau, là tài liệu hữu ích cho các em ôn tập, củng cố kiến thức, chuẩn bị cho kì thi sắp tới đạt kết quả cao.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 1: He has sold his house and has no job and so now he has next to nothing.
A. he has nothing at all
B. he is unemployed
C. he has almost no money
D. he has a few things
Question 2: Don’t play down John’s contribution to the research.
B. go along with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 3: It’s no use trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
A. It’s a waste of time trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
B. There’s no point to try to persuade Tom to change his mind.
C. It’s worth trying to persuade Tom to change his mind.
D. It’s useful trying to persuade Tom change his mind.
Question 4: After what he did, he deserves to be put away for life.
A. He should be pensioned forever because of his good life.
B. He deserves to be praised for his whole life.
C. He should be imprisoned for what he has done.
D. His wrong doings deserve to be forgiven.
Question 5: His story was so funny that it made us all laugh.
A. His story couldn’t make us laugh.
B. His story was very funny and we couldn’t help laughing.
C. We all laughed at him for his story.
D. His story was too funny to laugh.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 8: I met my long-lost brother. I was at a loss for words.
A. When the speaker met his brother, he refused to say anything.
B. When the speaker met his brother, he was puzzled about what to say.
C. When the speaker met his brother, he had nothing pleasant to say.
D. When the speaker met his brother, he had much to say.
Question 9: I strongly disapproved of your behavior. However, I will help you this time.
A. Despite of my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
B. Because of your behavior, I will help you this time.
C. Although I strongly disapproved of your behavior, but I will help you this time.
D. Despite my strong disapproval of your behavior, I will help you this time.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
The ocean bottom – a region nearly 2.5 times greater than the total land area of the Earth – is a vast frontier that even today is largely unexplored and uncharted. Until about a century ago, the deep-ocean floor was completely inaccessible, hidden beneath waters averaging over 3,600 meters deep. Totally without light and subjected to intense pressures hundreds of times greater than at the Earth’s surface, the deep-ocean bottom is a hostile environment to humans, in some ways as forbidding and remote as the void of outer space.
Although researchers have taken samples of deep-ocean rocks and sediments for over a century, the first detailed global investigation of the ocean bottom did not actually start until 1968, with the beginning of the National Science Foundation’s Deep Sea Drilling Project (DSDP).Using techniques first developed for the offshore oil and gas industry, the DSDP’s drill ship, the Glomar Challenger, was able to maintain a steady position on the ocean’s surface and drill in very deep waters, extracting samples of sediments and rock from the ocean floor.
The Glomar Challenger completed 96 voyages in a 15-year research program that ended in November 1983. During this time, the vessel logged 600,000 kilometers and took almost 20,000 core samples of seabed sediments and rocks at 624 drilling sites around the world. The Glomar Challenger’s core samples have allowed geologists to reconstruct what the planet looked like hundred of millions of years ago and to calculate what it will probably look like millions of years in the future. Today, largely on the strength of evidence gathered during the Glomar Challenger’s voyages, nearly all earth scientists agree on the theories of plate tectonics and continental drift that explain many of the geological processes that shape the Earth.
The cores of sediment drilled by the Glomar Challenger have also yielded information critical to understanding the world’s past climates. Deep-ocean sediments provide a climatic record stretching back hundreds of millions of years, because they are largely isolated from the mechanical erosion and the intense chemical and biological activity that rapidly destroy much land-based evidence of past climates. This record has already provided insights into the patterns and causes of past climatic change – information that may be used to predict future climates.
Question 10: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to
Question 11: The word “strength” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
Question 12: The word “extracting” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
Question 13: The word “inaccessible” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to
Question 14: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as being a result of the Deep Sea Drilling Project?
A. Geologists were able to determine the Earth’s appearance hundreds of millions of years ago.
B. Two geological theories became more widely accepted by scientists.
C. Geologists observed forms of marine life never before seen.
D. Information was revealed about the Earth’s past climatic changes.
Question 15: Which of the following is TRUE of the Glomar Challenger?
A. It is a type of submarine.
B. It is an ongoing project.
C. It has gone on over 100 voyages
D. It made its first DSDP voyage in 1968.
Question 16: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The Earth’s climate millions of years ago
B. The first detailed study of the bottom of the ocean
C. Geologists’ predictions for the future environment of the Earth
D. Marine life deep in the ocean
Question 17: The Deep Sea Drilling Project was significant because it was
A. an attempt to find new sources of oil and gas
B. the first extensive exploration of the ocean bottom
C. composed of geologists from all over the world
D. funded entirely by the gas and oil industry
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 18: By this time next summer, you _______ your studies at the university of medicine.
A. will complete
B. are completing
D. will have completed
Question 19: If I had enough money, I _______ abroad to improve my English.
A. would go
B. should go
C. will go
D. should have to go
Question 20: My father is interested _______ playing chess with his friends.
Question 21: The man ______ spoke to John over there is my brother.
Question 22: ______ electricity you use, _______ your bill will be.
B. The more / the high
C. The more/ the higher
D. The most/ the higher
Question 23: _______ he had enough money, he refused to buy a new car.
A. In spite
D. In spite of
Question 24: When I got up this morning, the kitchen was spotless. Alex ______ it before she went to bed last night.
A. should have tidied
B. needn’t have tidied
C. must have tidied
D. mustn’t have tidied
Question 25: Whenever I have problems, Jane is always very dependable. She never _______.
A. lets me down
B. takes me up
C. calls me off
D. catches me out
Question 26: I am looking forward to _______ you at your sister’s wedding.
C. to see
Question 27: He locked the doors _______ be disturbed when he was studying for his exams.
A. in order not
B. in order that
C. in order to
D. in order not to
Question 28: The government has enacted laws to protect gorillas to ensure their _______.
Question 29: When I went on a holiday with my friends I bought a pair of ______.
A. Italian old lovely shoes
B. lovely old Italian shoes
C. Italian lovely old shoes
D. old lovely Italian shoes
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30: A pessimistic person always sees things on the dark sides.
Question 31: I’d like to pay some money into my bank account.
A. put some money into
B. give some money out
C. leave some money aside
D. withdraw some money from
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 32: Kate and Jackie are talking about the plan of the English club meeting next week.
Kate: “Do you think Mary’s coming to the English club?” – Jackie: “________.”
A. I hope not.
B. I believe not.
C. I believe not so
D. I don’t believe.
Question 33: Jenifer and John was talking about their study at school.
Jenifer: “I thought your English skill was a lot better, John.” – John: “________.”
A. You’ve got to be kidding. I thought it was still bad.
B. Yes, please. Just a little.
C. No, thanks. I think I can do it.
D. Thank you. I’d love to.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions
Ancient people made clay pottery because they needed it for their survival. They used the pots they made for cooking, storing food, and carrying things from place to place. Pottery was so important to early cultures that scientists now study it to learn more about ancient civilizations. The more advanced the pottery in terms of decoration, materials, glazes and manufacture, the more advanced the culture itself. The artisan who makes pottery in North America today utilizes his or her skill and imagination to create items that are beautiful as well as functional, transforming something ordinary into something special and unique. The potter uses one of the Earth’s most basic materials, clay. Clay can be found almost everywhere. Good pottery clay must be free from all small stones and other hard materials that would make the potting process difficult. Most North American artisan-potters now purchase commercially processed clay, but some find the clay they need right in the earth, close to where they work.
The most important tools potters use are their own hand; however, they also use wire loop tools, wooden modeling tools, plain wire, and sponges. Plain wire is used to cut away the finished pot from its base on the potter’s wheel. After a finished pot is dried of all its moisture in the open air, it is placed in a kiln and fired. The first firing hardens the pottery, and it is then ready to be glazed and fired again. For areas where they do not want any glaze, such as the bottom of the pot, artisans paint on melted wax that will later burn off in the kiln. They then pour on the liquid glaze and let it run over the clay surface, making any kind of decorative pattern that they want.
Question 36: The word “pattern” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to
Question 37: It can be inferred from the passage that clay is processed commercially in order to
A. make it dry more evenly
B. remove hard substances
C. make it easier to color
D. prevent the glaze from sticking
Question 38: According to the passage, which of the following can be learned about an ancient civilization by examining its pottery?
A. Its developmental stage
B. Its population
C. Its geographic location
D. Its food preferences
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a way that ancient people used pottery?
A. To cook
B. To wash clothes
C. To hold food
D. To transport objects
Question 40: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The training of an artisan.
B. Crafts of ancient civilizations.
C. Different kinds of clay.
D. The making of pottery.
Question 41: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
Question 42: The word “basic” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to which of the following?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: According to the theory of natural selection, the man who was able to use the hands and feet (A) most freely (B) to walk and grasp (C) was the one who (D) survived and evolved.
Question 44: Either (A) Mr. Anderson or Ms. Wiggins are (B) going to teach our class today as (C) our teacher has been (D) staying in hospital.
Question 45: There is (A) an unresolved controversy as to whom (B) is (C) the real author of the Elizabethan plays commonly (D) credited to William Shakespeare.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase for each of the numbered blanks.
An ecosystem is a community of animals, plants and microbes that sustain themselves in the same area or environment by performing the activities of living, feeding, reproducing and interacting. Like many of Africas large mammals, giraffes have (46)______ in numbers and in range over the last century. At one time, herds of over 100 animals were common in savanna regions across the continent, however, today concentrations like these exist only in East Africa particularly Tanzania Serengeti National Park.
The decline of giraffe populations has largely been due to hunting. In Africa, the giraffe is a traditional source of hide and hair and also of tough but (47)______ meat. The hunting of giraffes has not yet had a catastrophic effect, (48)______ on some of Africas big-game animals, but it is a cause for concern. The natural habitat of the giraffe is also being impacted more and more by human activities, (49)______ the animals range. The giraffe is currently a protected species throughout most of its range and is classed as conservation-dependent by the World Conservation Union. The giraffe’s prospects for survival are good for (50)______ living in national parks and game reserves, but for animals living outside these areas the future is less secure.
A. like it does
B. as it does
C. like it has
D. as it has
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