Blog chia sẻ Bộ đề thi thử tốt nghiệp THPT môn Tiếng Anh năm 2022, giúp bạn ôn luyện và chuẩn bị cho thật tốt cho kì thi THPT sắp tới.
Đồng hành với các em học sinh trong mùa thi quan trọng này, Tailieufree xin gửi tới các bạn Bộ đề thi thử tốt nghiệp THPT Quốc gia năm 2022 môn Tiếng Anh. Đây là tổng hợp các đề thi thử môn Anh 2022 từ các trường THPT trên cả nước, là tài liệu hay để bạn đọc cùng tham khảo và ôn tập cho kì thi THPT Quốc gia sắp tới. Mời các bạn cùng tham khảo chi tiết và tải về tại đây.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 5: You may note down your qualifications and experience that can relate to the job.
A. put down
B. hold down
C. draw down
D. jot down
Câu 6: Many large corporations will be wiped out and millions of jobs will be lost.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Câu 7: On the whole, the rescue mission was well executed.
A. In fact
B. In particular
C. At once
D. In general
Câu 8: It’s difficult to tell him to give in because he is so big-headed.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Câu 9: What happened (A) in that city were (B) a reaction from city workers, including (C) firemen and policemen who had been laid off from their (D) jobs.
Câu 10: The Alaskan malamute, used (A) extensively for pulling (B) sleds, is closely (C) related about (D) the wolf.
Câu 11: In order to (A) avoid to make (B) mistakes, take (C) your time and work carefully.(D)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Câu 12: Who was the first person ______ the South Pole?
A. who reaches
C. to reach
Câu 13: Thank you very much. I haven’t been to_______party for ages.
A. so enjoyable
B. the so enjoyable
C. so enjoyable a
D. a so enjoyable
Câu 14: A skilled_______will help candidates feel relaxed.
Câu 15: The government devalued the currency to try to revive the _______ economy.
Câu 16: Terry______ in three movies already. I think he’ll be a star some day.
A. had appeared
B. has appeared
C. is appearing
D. was appearing
Câu 17: Narcissus bulbs_______at least three inches apart and covered with about four inches of well-drained soil.
A. should have been planted
B. should be planting
C. must plant
D. should be planted
Câu 18: An endangered species is a species______ population is so small that it is in danger of becoming extinct.
Câu 19: With this type of insurance, you’re buying ______ of mind.
Câu 20: There was hardly_______ money left in the bank account.
A. no more
Câu 21: Learning English isn’t so difficult, once you get______it.
A. down to
B. get off
C. get on
D. down with
Câu 22: Mary hardly ever cooks, ______?
A. did she
B. didn’t she
C. does she
D. doesn’t she
Câu 23: She has made an ______ for the job as a nursery teacher because she likes children.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Câu 24: Tim: “Let me wash the vegetable while you’re preparing the meat.”
– Linda: “______.”
A. OK. Thank you very much.
B. Good idea. I’ll do it for you.
C. Yes, please. But I can manage.
D. No problem.
Câu 25: Sara: “How do you feel about his comment?”
– Mary: “______.”
A. Yes, it’s a very good idea.
B. I don’t think he knew what he was saying.
C. I’m afraid I disagree with you.
D. If you ask me, I feel tired.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
On April 3, 1972, a man came out of the Hilton hotel in Manhattan and started walking down the street. He stopped, (26)______ his hand with a strange object in it, put it to his ear and started to talk into it. This was the beginning of mobile phone (27)_______, more than 30 years ago. That man was Motorola’s project manager, Martin Cooper, who was (28)______ his 34th birthday that day. The strange object was the first mobile phone, which was nicknamed “the shoe” because of its unusual (29)_______. Mr. Cooper had gone to New York to introduce the new phone. The first call he made was to his rival, Joe Engel at AT&T’s research centre. Engel was responsible for the development of the radiophones for cars. “I called him and said that I was talking on a real mobile phone (30)_____ I was holding in my hand,” said Cooper. “I don’t remember what he said in reply, but I’m sure he wasn’t happy.” The quality of the call was very good, because although New York had only one base station at that time, it was being used by only one user – Martin Cooper.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Most of the early houses built in America were suited to farm life, as it was not until cities became manufacturing centers that colonists could survive without farming as their major occupation. Among the earliest farmhouses in America were those built in Plymouth Colony. Generally they consisted of one large rectangular room on the ground floor, called a hall or great room and having a fireplace built into one of the walls, and a loft overhead. Sometimes a lean-to was attached alongside the house to store objects such as spinning wheels, firewood, barrels, and tubs. The furnishings in the great room were sparse and crudely built. Tabletops and chest boards were split or roughly sawed and often smoothed only on one side. Benches took the place of chairs, and the table usually had a trestle base so it could be dismantled when extra space was required. One or two beds and a six-board chest were located in one corner of the room. The fireplace was used for heat and light, and a bench often placed nearby for children and elders, in the area called the inglenook.
The original houses in Plymouth Colony were erected within a tall fence for fortification. However, by 1630 Plymouth Colony had 250 inhabitants, most living outside the enclosure. By 1640, settlements had been built some distance from the original site. Villages began to emerge throughout Massachusetts and farmhouses were less crudely built. Windows brought light into homes and the furnishings and décor were more sophisticated.
As more diversified groups of immigrants settled the country, a greater variety of farmhouses appeared, from Swedish long-style houses in the Delaware Valley to saltbox houses in Connecticut, Dutch-Flemish stone farmhouses in New York, and clapboard farmhouses in Pennsylvania. From Georgian characteristics to Greek revival elements, farmhouses of varied architectural styles and building functions populated the landscape of the new frontier.
Câu 31: The main idea of the passage is
A. The history of the American farmhouse
B. Where immigrants settled in America
C. How to build an American farmhouse
D. life in Plymouth Colony
Câu 32. Which of the following is not mentioned as part of the furnishings in farmhouses?
A. Rocking chair
C. Trestle- based table
D. Six – board chest
Câu 33: According to the passage the earliest farmhouses were built in
A. Delaware Valley
Câu 34: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to
A. trestle base
D. chest board
Câu 35: It can be inferred from the passage that
A. the major occupation in Plymouth Colony was carpentry
B. sophisticated tools were available to the early immigrants
C. cloth was important from England
D. the extended family lived together in the farmhouse
Câu 36: The passage was most probably written by a specialist in American
A. urban planning
Câu 37: The word “emerge” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced with
C. come out
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
The first two decades of this century were dominated by the microbe hunters. These hunters had tracked down one after another of the microbes responsible for the most dreaded scourges of many centuries: tuberculosis, cholera, diphtheria. But there remained some terrible diseases for which no microbe could be incriminated: scurvy, pellagra, rickets, beriberi. Then it was discovered that these diseases were caused by the lack of vitamins, a trace substance in the diet. The diseases could be prevented or cured by consuming foods that contained the vitamins. And so in the decades of the 1920’s and 1930’s, nutrition became a science and the vitamin hunters replaced the microbe hunters.
In the 1940’s and 1950’s, biochemists strived to learn why each of the vitamins was essential for health. They discovered that key enzymes in metabolism depend on one or another of the vitamins as coenzymes to perform the chemistry that provides cells with energy for growth and function. Now, these enzyme hunters occupied center stage.
You are aware that the enzyme hunters have been replaced by a new breed of hunters who are tracking genes – the blueprints for each of the enzymes – and are discovering the defective genes that cause inherited diseases – diabetes, cystic fibrosis. These gene hunters, or genetic engineers, use recombinant DNA technology to identify and clone genes and introduce them into bacterial cells and plants to create factories for the massive production of hormones and vaccines for medicine and for better crops for agriculture. Biotechnology has become a multibilliondollar industry.
In view of the inexorable progress in science, we can expect that the gene hunters will be replaced in the spotlight. When and by whom? Which kind of hunter will dominate the scene in the last decade of our waning century and in the early decades of the next? I wonder whether the hunters who will occupy the spotlight will be neurobiologists who apply the techniques of the enzyme and gene hunters to the funtions of the brain. What to call them? The head hunters. I will return to them later.
Câu 38: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The microbe hunters.
B. The potential of genetic engineering.
C. The progress of modern medical research.
D. The discovery of enzymes.
Câu 39: The word “incriminated’ in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to
Câu 40: Which of the following can be cured by a change in diet?
C. Cystique fibroses
D. Pell Agra
Câu 41: The word “strived” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
Câu 42: How do vitamins influence health?
A. They protect the body from microbes
B. They are broken down by cells to produce energy
C. They keep food from spoiling
D. They are necessary for some enzymes to function
Câu 43: The phrase “occupy the spotlight” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. go to furthest
B. lighten to load
C. conquer territory
D. receive the most attention
Câu 44: The author implies that the most important medical research topic of the future will be
A. the functions of the brain
B. inherited diseases
C. the operation of vitamins
D. the structure of genes
Câu 45: With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. Most diseases are caused by defective genes
B. The focus of medical research will change in the next two decades.
C. Medical research throughout the twentieth century has been dominated by microbe hunters.
D. Medical breakthroughs often depend on luck.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence which has the same meaning as the original one.
Câu 46: They bought a gift that was very expensive for their son.
A. They gave their son a gift that was very expensive.
B. Their son bought an expensive gift for his birthday.
C. The gift was so expensive that they didn’t buy it for their son.
D. Although the gift was inexpensive, they didn’t buy it for their son.
Câu 47: We couldn’t have managed our business successfully without my father’s money.
A. Had it not been for my father’s money, we couldn’t have managed our business successfully.
B. We could have managed our business successfully with my father’s money.
C. If we could manage our business successfully, my father would give us his money.
D. If we couldn’t have managed our business successfully, we would have had my father’s money.
Câu 48: He wants his wife to quit her job and look after their children.
A. He would like his wife to stop working and looking after their children.
B. He wants to quit his job and his wife look after their children.
C. He would like his wife to continue working in spite of looking after their children.
D. He would like his wife to stop working and look after their children.
Mark the letter A, B, c or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence which best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Câu 49: I owed Bill a favor. I agreed to help him.
A. lf I hadn’t owed Bill a favor, I would have agreed to help him.
B. It was only because I owed Bill a favor that I agreed to help him.
C. Although I owed Bill a favor, I agreed to help him.
D. I only agreed to help Bill because I owed him some money.
Câu 50: She doesn’t want to go to their party. We don’t want to go either.
A. Either we or she doesn’t want to go to their party.
B. Neither we nor she want to go to their party.
C. Neither we nor she wants to go to their party.
D. Neither she nor we don’t want to go to their party.
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